> The US doesn't have popular voting system. There are good reasons for it, and in no way does it make the US non-democratic.
Presumably if my votes counted a million times more than yours, you wouldn't say it's still a democracy, right? The extreme here is obviously a single ruler whose vote counts more than everyone else's combined. Where do you draw the line here?
You are saying, if it’s not direct popular vote, it’s not democratic. Germany and the US are then no democracies by this standard, and I am sure there are much more. I believe UK also not.
That’s your definition, but then I’d like to understand what you call these form of government and how you differentiate from a country like russia, which is also holding elections.
The way you phrase it is very binary: either a country has popular vote or it’s the same as the least democratic countries.
> The way you phrase it is very binary: either a country has popular vote or it’s the same as the least democratic countries.
No. I merely pointed out that we have two extremes and that a line needs to be drawn somewhere, and thus asked where the parent commenter draws the line. That's it. I never suggested anything about where I believe the line should be drawn.
Not sure what line that is. The line after which one decides to leave the country? But the voting system of country rarely changes. Or is it the line separating the good from the bad countries? In which case, yes, it’s reductive and manichean.
The line at which you would stop feeling comfortable calling the country democratic. Again, I'm not judging, just asking a direct question, so no need to put other words in my mouth.
Presumably if my votes counted a million times more than yours, you wouldn't say it's still a democracy, right? The extreme here is obviously a single ruler whose vote counts more than everyone else's combined. Where do you draw the line here?