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No, it's obviously not a "5000%" markup, because the pharma company doesn't just pay its COGS.


OK, so you're just arguing about a technicality. Why waste so much of our time? Why not engage with the core of my comment and instead nitpick an obvious hyperbole? What can you possibly gain this way?


Your entire premise is invalid. You have a faulty understanding of the cost structure of drug production. That's not a "technicality".


What an unpleasant conversation, I still have no idea what you're trying to say. It doesn't help that you're not adding anything to it.

Europeans get some drugs for 50x cheaper than Americans because of collective bargaining. Isn't that definite proof there is unnecessary profiteering in the final price?


Europeans also get drugs for 50x cheaper because American premiums are subsidizing them.




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