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Interpreting A⇔B⇔C as (A⇔B)⇔C is utterly non-standard, but admittedly interesting.

A⇔B⇔C is usually not a valid expression in any mathematical formalism. But if used informally, A⇔B⇔C is usually meant to mean (A⇔B)∧(B⇔C), just as when you say A=B=C when you actually mean (A=B)∧(B=C).



https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Logical_biconditional

(A⇔B)⇔C has more in common with the other logical operators: due to it's associativity an interpretation that is, in my opinion, closer than A=B=C.

Edit, removed: Note that (A⇔B)∧(B⇔C)) is not one of the two ambiguous options: either (A⇔B)⇔C or (A∧B∧C)∨(¬A∧¬B∧¬C) this is wrong.


What? `(A⇔B)∧(B⇔C)` is exactly equivalent to `(A∧B∧C)∨(¬A∧¬B∧¬C)` which is equivalent to `A = B = C`


So it is.




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